Wait what? (1+2+3+4+...

[BAndrew]

1 - lim(n->inf) 1/10^n = 1

I have not seen any convincing evidence to support the claim that 1/inf is 0. Yet this proof goes ahead and assumes that. It's infinitely small, so it gets smaller and smaller until the end of time. It doesn't just stop existing. How anybody can accept that is beyond me. I'm not arguing on the basis of mathematics here, so don't bother throwing proofs at me (I've seen most of them).

Bolded:
If that is true then you should know that:
lim.(1/x) = lim.(1/x) = 0
x-->+∞...x-->-∞

It's basic calculus that you (probably) learn on high school. I am not assuming anything, nor does the proof.


Underlined: If you have seen the other proofs then is there something wrong with them?