Wait what? (1+2+3+4+...

[BAndrew]

I realize that, hence why I put "reach" in quotation marks. But here we are at square one. Why do you say that (1/inf)/2 = 0? It seems to me to be completely unprovable since such a calculation is not possible. Until it is, any evidence provided is purely speculative.

I already said that in order to prove this you have to accept the definition of the limit and work your way through it. If you don't accept the definition then I can't prove anything.

I still don't understand how you can perform a calculation with something unmeasurable. You haven't really told me how that can be done, only that it is done. And it doesn't make any sense to me.

I'm thinking it's more of a philosophical question rather than truth and not something that can be proven but just assumed.

I already told you that multiplying the numbers of points in a line segment (infinite) with the length of one point gives (or could give) you the lenght of a line. segment. This calculation is undefined which means it can't be done straightforward and involves advanced methods.